1. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes
to replace the question mark
Bee-Honey, Cow-Milk, Teacher-?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Marks
(C) Lessons
(D) Wisdom
Answer: (D)
2. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T
is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T
(A) Wife
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law
(D) Daughter-in-law
Answer: (B)
3. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by
influencing attitudes
or stirring emotions is called
(A) Lexical
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D) Precisions
Answer: (B)
4. Which of the codes given below contains only the
correct statements?
Statements:
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of
testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the
conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping
circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) & (iv)
Answer: (B)
5. Inductive reasoning presupposes
(A) Unity in human nature.
(B) Integrity in human nature.
(C) Uniformity in human nature.
(D) Harmony in human nature.
Answer: (C)
Read the table below and based on this table answer
questions from 6 to 11:
Area under Major Horticulture Crops (in lakh
hectares)
|
Year
|
Fruits
|
Vegetables
|
Flowers
|
Total Horticulture Area
|
|
2005-06
|
53
|
72
|
1
|
187
|
|
2006-07
|
56
|
75
|
1
|
194
|
|
2007-08
|
58
|
78
|
2
|
202
|
|
2008-09
|
61
|
79
|
2
|
207
|
|
2009-10
|
63
|
79
|
2
|
209
|
6. Which of the following two years have
recorded the highest rate of increase in area under the total horticulture?
(A) 2005-06 & 2006-07
(B) 2006-07 & 2008-09
(C) 2007-08 & 2008-09
(D) 2006-07 & 2007-08
Answer: (D)
7. Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables and
fruits in the area under total horticulture are respectively:
(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent
(B) 30, 38 and 1 perctent
(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent
(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent
Answer: (A)
8. Which of the following has recorded the highest
rate of increase in area during 2005-06 to 2009-10?
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture
Answer: (C)
9. Find out the horticultural crops that have
recorded an increase of area by around 10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10.
(A) Fruits
(B)Vegetables
(C) Flower
(D)Total horticulture
Answer: (B)
10. What has been the share of area under fruits,
vegetables and flowers in the area under total horticulture in 2007-08?
(A) 53 percent
(B) 68 percent
(C) 79 percent
(D) 100 percent
Answer: (B)
11. In which year, area under fruits has recorded
the highest rate of increase?
(A) 2006-07
(B) 2007-08
(C) 2008-09
(D) 2009-10
Answer: (A)
12. ‘www’ stands for
(A) work with web
(B) word wide web
(C) world wide web
(D) worth while web
Answer: (C)
13. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is
further subdivided into
(A) Clusters
(B) Sectors
(C) Vectors
(D) Heads
Answer: (B)
14. A computer program that translates a program
statement by statement into machine languages is called a/an
(A) Compiler
(B) Simulator
(C) Translator
(D) Interpreter
Answer: (D)
15. A Gigabyte is equal to
(A) 1024 Megabytes
(B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes
(D) 1024 Bytes
Answer: (A)
16. A Compiler is a software which converts
(A) characters to bits
(B) high level language to machine language
(C) machine language to high level language
(D) words to bits
Answer: (B)
17. Virtual memory is
(A) an extremely large main memory.
(B) an extremely large secondary memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory.
(D) a type of memory used in super computers.
Answer: (C)
18. The phrase “tragedy of commons” is in the
context of
(A) tragic even related to damage caused by release
of poisonous gases.
(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free access resources.
(D) climate change.
Answer: (C)
19. Kyoto Protocol is related to
(A) Ozone depletion
(B) Hazardous waste
(C) Climate change
(D) Nuclear energy
Answer: (C)
20. Which of the following is a source of emissions
leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
(C) Wetlands
(D) Fertilizers
Answer: (A)
21. The smog in cities in Indian mainly consists of
(A) Oxides of sulphur
(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM
(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone
Answer: (B)
22. Which of the following types
of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods
Answer: (D)
23. The percentage share of renewable energy
sources in the power production in India is around
(A) 2-3%
(B) 22-25%
(C) 10-12%
(D) < 1%
Answer: (C)
24. In which of the following
categories the enrolment of students in higher education in 2010-11 was beyond
the percentage of seats reserved?
(A) OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Women students
Answer: (A)
25. Which one of the following statements is not
correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of
Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating
higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the
Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in
respect of State Universities.
Answer: (D)
26. Consider the statement which is followed by two
arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should India switch over to a two party
system?
Arguments
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of
voters.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (C)
27. Consider the statement which is followed by two
arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background
be banned from contesting elections?
Arguments: (I) Yes, it
will decriminalize politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party
to file frivolous cases against their political opponents.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (A)
28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1) A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the
President of India.
2) He holds office during the pleasure of the
President.
3) He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4) He can be removed for proven misbehaviors
or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
Codes:
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Answer: (D)
29. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Ministers
Answer: (C)
30. The black-board can be utilized best by a
teacher for
(A) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(B) Making the students attentive
(C) Writing the important and notable points
(D) Highlighting the teacher himself.
Answer: (C)
31. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is
(A) Self study
(B) Face-to-face learning
(C) e-learning
(D) Blended learning
Answer: (C) and (D)
Both
32. At the primary school stage, most of the
teachers should be women because they
(A) can teach children better than men.
(B) know basic content better than men.
(C) are available on lower salaries.
(D) can deal with children with love and affection.
Answer: (D)
33. Which one is the highest order of learning?
(A) Chain learning
(B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning
(D) Conditioned-reflex learning
Answer: (D)
34. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession
when he
(A) has control over students.
(B) commands respect from students.
(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.
(D) is very close to higher authorities.
Answer: (B)
35. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words.” The
statement means that the teacher should
(A) use diagrams in teaching.
(B) speak more and more in the class.
(C) use teaching aids in the class.
(D) not speak too much in the class.
Answer: (C)
36. A research paper
(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B) contains original research as deemed by the
author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or
evaluation of research conducted by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.
Answer: (C)
37. Which one of the following belongs to the
category of good ‘research ethics’?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research
journals without telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that
acknowledges the contributions
of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without
discussing your reasons in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a
research paper in return for a favor even though the colleague did not make a
serious contribution to the paper.
Answer: (B)
38. Which of the following sampling methods is not
based on probability?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling
Answer: (C)
39. Which one of the following references is
written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New
Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(B) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New
Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New
Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New
Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Answer: (D)
40. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion on a topic.
(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) a class at a college or a university
in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group
emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific
problem.
Answer: (D)
41. A working hypothesis is
(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) not required to be tested.
(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further
research.
(D) a scientific theory.
Answer: (C)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions (42 to 47):
The Taj Mahal has become one of the
world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on
a high plinth at the southern end of four-quartered garden, evoking the gardens
of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 meters. Outside the
walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants,
market, serials and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The
tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by
the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The
name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary
Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. in
contemporary texis, it is generally called simply the illuminated Tomb
(Rauza-i-Munavvara).
Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after
delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in
Buhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the grief stricken emperor in
a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months
later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen
for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of
the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh
and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary
chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extantfarmans (imperial
commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years
after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured
by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that the provide
stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within
his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s
additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently.
Work on the mausoleum was commenced
early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed
by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony
for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.
42. Marble stone used for the
construction of te Taj Mahal was brought from te ancestral domain of Raja Jai
Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is
(A) Burhanpur
(B) Makrana
(C) Amber
(D) Jaipur
Answer: (B)
43. The popular name Taj Mahal was
given by
(A) Shah
Jahan
(B) Tourists
(C) Public
(D) European travellers
Answer: (D)
44. Point out the true statement from
the following:
(A) Marble was not used for
the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B) Red sand stone is non-visible in
the Taj Mahal complex.
(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a
four-quatered garden known as Chahr Bagh.
(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to
celebrate the “Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal”.
Answer: (C)
45. In the contemporary texts the Taj
Mahal is known
(A) Mumtazabad
(B) Mumtaz Mahal
(C) Zainabad
(D) Rauza-i-Munavvara
Answer: (D)
46. The Construction of the Taj Mahal
was completed between the period
(A) 1632-1636 A.D.
(B) 1630-1643 A.D.
(C) 1632-1643 A.D.
(D) 1636-1643 A.D.
Answer: (C)
47. The documents indicating the
ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as
(A) Farman
(B) Sale Deed
(C) Sale-Purchase Deed
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
48. In the process of communication,
which one of the following is in the chronological order?
(A) Communicator, Medium, Receiver,
Effect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator, Message,
Receiver, Effect
(C) Communicator, Message, Medium,
Receiver, Effect.
(D) Message, Communicator, Medium,
Receiver, Effect.
Answer: (C)
49. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper
in India was started in 1780 by
(A) Dr. Annie Besant
(B) James Augustus Hicky
(C) Lord Cripson
(D) A.O. Hume
Answer: (B)
50. Press censorsip in India was
imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
(A) Rajeev Gandhi
(B) Narasimha Rao
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Deve Gowda
Answer: (C)
51. Communication
via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is
termed as
(A) Entertainment
(B) Interactive communication
(C) Developmental communication
(D) Communication
Answer: (B)
52. Classroom communication of a
teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Enlightenment
Answer: (B)
53. __________________ is important
when a teacher communicates with his/her student.
(A) Sympathy
(B) Empathy
(C) Apathy
(D) Antipathy
Answer: (B)
54. In a certain code GALIB is
represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by
(A) UJHFS
(B) UHJSE
(C) JHUSF
(D) HUJSE
Answer: (A)
55. In a certain cricket tournament 45
matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The
number of teams participated
in the tournament is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 210
Answer: (B)
56. The missing number in the series
40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
(A) 110
(B) 270
(C) 105
(D) 210
Answer: (B)
57. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which
are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position
is
(A) 18
(B) 24
(C) 33
(D) 36
Answer: (C)
58. The mean of four numbers a,b,c,d is
100. IF c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is
(A) 30
(B) 85/2
(C) 170/3
(D) 110
Answer: (D)
59. If the radius of a circle is
increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increased by
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
Answer: (D)
60. If the statement ‘some men are
honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true. Choose the
correct code given below:
(i) All men are honest
(ii) No men are honest
(iii) Some men are not honest.
(iv) All men are dishonest.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B)
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